Let \begin{equation} H = \{f \in L^2(0,\infty):\int_0^\infty f^2(x)e^{-x}dx \lt\infty\} \end{equation}
Show that $H$ is a Hilbert space with scalar product \begin{equation} \langle f,g \rangle = \int_0^\infty f(x)g(x)e^{-x}dx \end{equation}
I was trying to show that it is complete about the norm coming from scalar product, but I think it's way too difficult. Instead, I was thinking to define a Unitary isomorphism between $H$ and $L^2(0,\infty)$ like this: \begin{equation} U:H\rightarrow L^2(0,\infty) \end{equation}
such that $\langle U(f),U(g)\rangle_{L^2}$ = $\langle f,g\rangle_{H}$.
The idea is that the scala product on $H$ is really similar to $L^2$ 's one. Any suggestions on how to define it properly?
I think this is false. $\{I_{(0,n)}\}$ is a Cauchy sequence in $H$ which is not convergent. If this sequence converges in $H$ then some sequence converges almost everywhere w.r.t. $e^{-x}dx$ hence w.r.t. Lebesgue measure and the limit has to be $1$ almost everywhere w.r.t. Lebesgue measure. But then the limit is not in $L^{2}(0,\infty)$, hence not in $H$.