Let $A$ be an integral domain, $a$ and $b \in A-\{0\}$, and let $B = A[X]/(aX+b)$. Show that, if $Aa \cap Ab=Aab$, then $B$ is an integral domain.
My attempt at proof (following a hint). Denote by $K$ the field of fractions of $A$. Let $\phi: A[X] \to K$, with $\phi(X)=-b/a$ and $\phi(y)=y, y \in A$.
Then $\phi(aX+b)=-b+b=0$. If $p(X) \in A[X]$ and $p(X) \not \in (aX+b)$, then $p(X)=q(X)(aX+b)+r$, $r \in A$. Therefore, $\phi(p(X))=\phi(r)=r$, so $p(X) \in \ker(\phi) \iff r=0 \iff p(X) \in (aX+b)$.
Hence $\ker(\phi)=(aX+b)$; by the first isomorphism theorem, $A[X]/(aX+b)$ must be isomorphic to Im$(\phi)$. In conclusion $B$ is isomorphic to a subfield of $K$, so it's an integral domain.
The problem is, I don't know where I used the condition $Aa \cap Ab=Aab$. Am I doing something wrong?
You write:
Yet how do you actually justify it? One cannot divide by a polynomial in an integral domain in general; one needs the leading coefficient is invertible (or some other assumption).
So, let us work over the quotient field instead. We can define the $\phi$ just as well over $K[x]$ and then we get that the kernel for the map defined on $K[X]$ is the ideal generated by $aX + b$ in $K[X]$.
Now, restrict the map to $A[X]$. Then the kernel is the intersection of $A[X]$ with the ideal generated by $aX+b$ in $K[X]$. In general this is not the same as the ideal generated by $aX+ b$ in $A[X]$ but here you can then use your assumption.