Consider $G = (\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})$, where $p$ is prime. Show that every non-zero element has order $p$.
I have seen the proof for this in Dummit and Foote using multiplicative notation, but I'm having trouble solving this using additive notation. What I have so far:
Let $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}) = \{\bar{0}, \bar{1}, \bar{2}, ..., \overline{p-1}\}$, and let $\bar{a} \in \{ \bar{1}, \bar{2}, ..., \overline{p-1}\}$. Suppose ord$(\bar{a}) = n$, that is, $na \equiv 0$ (mod $p$). We want to show $n=p$.
Since $na \equiv 0$ (mod $p$), then $p \mid na$. Given that $p$ is prime and $a < p$, we have gcd$(a,p) = 1$. These facts together imply that $p \mid n$.
I still need to show that $p=n$. I know by the definition of order that $n$ must be the least positive integer such that $n\bar{a} = \bar{0}$, i.e. $na = p$. Is this enough to say also that $n \mid p$, and thus $n=p$?
I think I am very close to solving this but I can't quite put the pieces together. Any help would be appreciated.
In $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})$, for each element $\overline a$ you have$$\overbrace{\overline a+\overline a+\cdots+\overline a}^{p\text{ times}}=\overline{pa}=0.$$So, no element has order greater than $p$.