Consider the following sequence $\left\{f_n\right\}$ defined on $0 \leq x \leq 1$. Show that the sequence converges uniformly on $0 \leq x \leq 1$
$$f_n(x)=\frac{1}{x+n}(n=1,2,3,...) $$
My work:
First notice that the sequence is continuous for every values of $n$.
$$f(x)=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}f_n(x)$$
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}f_n(x)=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{x+n}$$
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}f_n(x)=0$$
If the function converges uniformly on the interval $[0,1]$ then there exists an $\epsilon>0$ for ever $n>N$
$$|f_n(x)-f(x)|< \epsilon$$
$$|\frac{1}{x+n}-0|<\epsilon$$
$$\frac{1}{x+n}<\epsilon$$
$$n>\frac{1}{\epsilon}-x$$
Hence we can say that
$$N=\frac{1}{\epsilon}-x$$
Can someone help me out. It is my first time doing something like this.
We have that
$$x\in [0,1]\implies \dfrac{1}{x+n}\le \dfrac 1n.$$ Thus, for any $\epsilon>0$ there exists $N\in\mathbb{N}$ ($N>1/\epsilon$) such that
$$n\ge N\implies |f_n(x)-f(x)|= \dfrac{1}{x+n}\le \dfrac 1n\le \dfrac1N<\epsilon.$$