Suppose $1 ≤ p < ∞, f ∈ L^p(R)$, and
$F(x) = \int_{x}^{x+1} f(t) dm(t)$
Prove that F vanishes at infinity.
We know that $\int_R |f|^p < \infty$, then, of course, for any $x, F(x)< \int_x^{x+1} |f|^p < \infty$. But I want to show that not only is it finite, but it goes to zero as $x$ goes to $\infty$.
I was thinking to approach it by way of contradiction. Assume that,
(WLOG assume $f \geq 0$)
$lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} F(x) > 0$
$\implies lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \int_x^{x+1} f(t) dm(t) > 0$
I thought perhaps to approach this with partial sums.. and show that it contradicts that $f \in L^p(R)$. But I have had no luck with this.
Help? Hints? I would greatly appreciate it!
Let $q$ be the conjugated exponent of $p$.
Hölder inequality on $[x,x+1]$ and Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem imply \begin{align} |F(x)| &\le \int_{x}^{x+1} |f| \\ &\le \left(\int_x^{x+1} |f|^p\right)^{1/p}\left(\int_x^{x+1} 1\right)^{1/q} \\ &=\left(\int_{\langle -\infty, x+1]}|f|^p - \int_{\langle -\infty, x]}|f|^p\right)^{1/p} \\&\xrightarrow{x\to\infty} \left(\|f\|_p^p - \|f\|_p^p\right)^{1/p} \\ &= 0 \end{align} so $\lim_{x\to\infty} F(x) = 0$.