Show that for a locally uniformly convergent sequence of functions and a converging sequence of points $f_{n}(x_{n})$ converges to $f(x)$

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Let $X$ be a metric space and let $f_{n}:X\to\mathbb{R}$ be a uniformly convergent sequence converging to a continuous function $f:X\to\mathbb{R}$ on $X$ . Let $\left\{ x_{n}\right\} _{n=1}^{\infty}\subseteq X$ be a sequence converging to $x^{*}\in X$ , show that $f_{n}\left(x_{n}\right)$ converges to $f\left(x^{*}\right)$ .

Proof: Given $\varepsilon>0$ by continuity of $f$ there exists a $\delta>0$ such that $$d\left(x,x^{*}\right)<\delta\Longrightarrow\left|f\left(x\right)-f\left(x^{*}\right)\right|<\frac{\varepsilon}{2}$$ From convergence of $\left\{ x_{n}\right\} _{n=1}^{\infty}$ to $x^{*}$ there exists an $N_{1}\in\mathbb{N}$ such that for all $n\geq N_{1}$ we have $d\left(x_{n},x^{*}\right)<\delta$ and thus by continuity $\left|f\left(x_{n}\right)-f\left(x^{*}\right)\right|<\frac{\varepsilon}{2}$ . From uniform convergence of $f_{n}$ there is an $N_{2}\in\mathbb{N}$ such that for all $n\geq N_{2}$ $\left|f_{n}\left(x_{n}\right)-f\left(x_{n}\right)\right|<\frac{\varepsilon}{2}$ and thus for all $n\geq\max\left\{ N_{1},N_{2}\right\}$ $$\left|f_{n}\left(x_{n}\right)-f\left(x^{*}\right)\right|\leq\left|f_{n}\left(x_{n}\right)-f\left(x_{n}\right)\right|+\left|f\left(x_{n}\right)-f\left(x^{*}\right)\right|<\varepsilon$$ Proving the claim.

Now I wish to show this is also true if the convergence is only locally uniform. However, I run into the problem that I no longer have an $N_{2}$ such that for all $n\geq N_{2}$ $\left|f_{n}\left(x_{n}\right)-f\left(x_{n}\right)\right|<\frac{\varepsilon}{2}$ . At most for all $n$ I know there is neighborhood of $x_{n}$ where the $f_{n}$ converges uniformly and thus I can select an $N_{x_{n}}$ such that for all $n\geq N_{x_{n}}$ I have $\left|f_{n}\left(x_{n}\right)-f\left(x_{n}\right)\right|<\frac{\varepsilon}{2}$ . But now I can't take the maximum of all such $N_{x_{n}}$ to achieve my goal. Compactness of $X$ would solve this easily but that is not part of the claim I'm trying to prove. I'd appreciate some help.

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You can reduce this problem to the case of uniform convergence. Choose $r>0$ sufficiently small so that $f_n$ converges uniformly on $B_r(x^*)$. Now note that all but finitely many $x_n$ lie in $B_r(x^*)$.

If you want to be more formal on the last part: Choose $N$ sufficiently large so that $x_n \in B_r(x^*)$ for all $n > N$. Now define the new sequencse $y_n = x_{N + n}$ and $g_n = f_{n + N}\mid_{B_r(x^*)}$. Then $g_n$ converges uniformly to $f$, $y_n$ converges uniformly to $x^*$ and by the first part $f_{n+N}(x_{n+N}) = g_n(y_n) \to f(x^*)$.