I am stuck on the following problem.
Let $\omega$ be the canonical symplectic structure. Let $\alpha$ be a differential 1-form on $M$, and let $$L=\{(p,\alpha(p)):p\in M\}\subseteq T^*M.$$ Consider a smooth map $i:M\rightarrow T^*M$ defined by $i(p)=(p,\alpha(p)).$
Show that the $i^*\omega=-d\alpha.$
I am totally stuck at this problem for several hours. The only thing I can think is that I should show that $$i^*\omega(p,q)=-d\alpha(p,q).$$ Actually, even I am not sure about this. I hope I could get some help from here. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.
As I understand, the canonical symplectic structure is defined on $ T^*M $. So the pullback, $ i^* \omega $ is a $ 2 $-form on $ M $ and has to be evaluated at a point $ p \in M $ (as opposed to what you write as $ i^* \omega (p,q) $; if you meant $ (p,q) $ is a point of $ T^*M $, then that's not the case). The details are somewhat computational as follows:
For $ p \in M $, let $ U $ be a co-ordinate chart with co-ordinates $ x_1, x_2, \cdots, x_n $. We have the bases $ \left \{\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i} \right\}_{1 \le i \le n} $ for $ TU $ and $ \{ dx_i \}_{1 \le i \le n } $ for $ T^*U $. Then we have the co-ordinates $ x_1, \cdots , x_n, y_1, \cdots, y_n $ on the cotangent bundle around $ (p, \alpha(p)) $. Then the canonical symplectic form on $ T^*M $ is $ \omega = \sum_i (dx_i \wedge dy_i) $. Suppose $ \alpha = \sum_i a_i dx_i $ on $ U $. Then it is not hard to show that $$ di_p \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j} \right) = \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j} + \sum_i \frac{\partial a_i}{\partial x_j} \cdot \frac{\partial}{\partial y_i} $$
Now, $$ (i^* \omega)_p \left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}, \frac{\partial}{\partial x_k} \right) = \omega_{(p, \alpha(p))} \left( di_p \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j} \right), di_p \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial x_k} \right) \right) = \sum_i (dx_i \wedge dy_i) \left( di_p \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j} \right), di_p \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial x_k} \right) \right) $$ You have to check the indices $ j,k $ only and after a short computation (if I've got my signs correct) this is equal to $ -\frac{\partial a_k}{\partial x_j} + \frac{\partial a_j}{\partial x_k} $. After this it is easy to check that this indeed equals $ -(d \alpha)_p \left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}, \frac{\partial}{\partial x_k} \right) $ which verifies the assertion.