We were given the following problem as an assignment, we proved the converse in class for prime numbers; however, we can't use the assumption that $\operatorname{gcd}(a,b) = 1$. So I am struggling to think of my first possible move.
We are given $ar + bs = 1$, the only think I can think of is let $d$ be a common divisor or $ar + bs$ and then show that the $d = 1$. However, I am not really sure how to do that. If anyone could just give me a hint or two to nudge me in the right direction I would be appreciative.
Hint: Suppose to the contrary that $d\gt 1$ divides both $a$ and $b$. Then $d$ divides $ar$ and $\dots$.