The exercise is given as the title says, I've just watched in this question the case of $K_1$ so I do wonder, do I have to make a similar proof? Or there's a different way to make it?
Proof(Attempt): Since $G$ is $k$-connected so there is $k$ different disjoint paths between each vertices $u,v$ in $G$. In the same way for $H$ and $t$. So after we make the join between the graphs, each vertex in $G$ is now adjacent to each vertex in $H$, thus there exist at least $k+t$ disjoint paths for each vertex in $G+H \\ \therefore G+H \text{ is $(k+t)$-connected}$.
Honestly, I've got the sensation that this proof is a little bit void, it is alright? there are some details that I missed? Any suggestions/hints?
I would only give few additional details. Let $u,v \in V(G+H)$.