Let $M_n = \{a\in \Bbb Z_n\mid \text{ there exists a non-zero integer $k$ with the property that }a^k\equiv 0 \pmod n \}.$
Show that if $m \in M_n$ and $k \in \Bbb Z_n$, then $mk\in M_n$. For which integers $n$ is $M_n=0$?
This is for an elementary abstract algebra class. Having some difficulty showing this. Some scratch work:
$M_n$ is a ring with no multiplicative identity since $1\not\in M_n \forall n$
A hunch is that $M_n= 0$ if $n$ has any integer roots.
$m\in M_n \iff \exists r\not =0 \in \Bbb Z$ such that $n$ divides $m^r$ $\iff \exists q \in \Bbb Z$ such that $m^r = nq$
Suppose $mk \in M_n$
then $\exists s \not =0 \in \Bbb Z$ such that $n$ divides $(mk)^t \iff \exists p \in \Bbb Z$ such that $(mk)^s = np \iff m^tk^t=np$
Let $s=r$
$m^rk^r=np$
$m^r=nq\Rightarrow qk^r=p$
q is a fixed integer, r is a fixed non-zero integer, p is any integer. So, $qk^r$ is an integer for all k. Therefore $mk\in M_n$
I'm fairly certain this is all wrong. Any help is greatly appreciated, thank you.
$\begin{eqnarray}{\bf Hint} &&p_1^{e_1}\cdots p_j^{e_j}\!&\mid a^k\,\ \rm for\ some\ k\\ \iff &&\ \forall\, i\!:\ \ \ p_i^{e_i} &\mid a^{k_i}\ \rm for\ some\ k_i \\ \iff &&\ \forall\, i\!:\ \ \ p_i&\mid a \end{eqnarray}$