This question is in a complex numbers exercises list.
Instead of a full answer, a suggestion was given to me on the solutions part of the list, which says to multiply $p(x)$ by $(x-1)$. I have done that by unfortunately do not know how does that help on proving what the question asks. In my "proof", I do that and then I try to solve $p(x)=0$ to find roots: $$p(x)\cdot(x-1)=(x^{n+1}+x^{n}+...+x^2+x-x^n-x^{n-1}-...-x-1)\Rightarrow$$ $$ \Rightarrow p(x)\cdot(x-1)=x^{n+1}-1\Rightarrow$$ $$\Rightarrow p(x)= \frac{x^{n+1}-1}{x-1}=0 \therefore n=-1, x \ne 1$$
Could anyone please help me on this problem? How does this train of thought help? Or even, is there any other proof that even a math beginner like me can work it out (preferably using complex numbers)? Thank you for reading!
If $a$ is a zero of $p(x)$, then it is a zero of $p(x)\cdot(x-1)=x^{n+1}-1$. It follows that $a^{n+1}=1$. If $a$ was real, then necessarily $a=\pm 1$, though we can immediately exclude $a=-1$ because $n+1$ is odd. Also $a=1$ can be excludef because $$p(1)=n+1.$$ Thus, no zero $a$ of $p(x)$ can be real.