The homework question I have here, is:
Show that if $\overrightarrow{a} \times \overrightarrow{u} = 0$ for any unit vector $\overrightarrow{u}$, then $\overrightarrow{a}=\overrightarrow{0}$
Things I have tried:
- Multiplying by the unit vectors $\hat{i}, \hat{j}, \hat{k}$. Let $\overrightarrow{a}= \begin{bmatrix} a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix}$
$\begin{bmatrix} a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix} \times \begin{bmatrix} 1\\0\\0\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0\\c\\-b\end{bmatrix}$
$\begin{bmatrix} a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix} \times \begin{bmatrix} 0\\1\\0\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -c\\0\\a\end{bmatrix}$
$\begin{bmatrix} a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix} \times \begin{bmatrix} 0\\0\\1\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} b\\-a\\0\end{bmatrix}$
Is this what the problem meant by any unit vector $\overrightarrow{u}$? Just the three unit vectors $\hat{i}, \hat{j}, \hat{k}$? Not sure where to go next if that's the case, or if that was a wrong step taken.
Any unit vector implies just that, any, and arbitrary, not just $\hat{i}, \hat{j}, \hat{k}$ which are 3 specific unit vectors.
$$ \vec{a} \times \vec{u} = \vec{0} $$ tells you either $\vec{a}$ is parallel to $\vec{u}$ or $\vec{a}=\vec{0}$.
But, $\vec{u}$ is an arbitrary unit vector. $\vec{a}$ cannot be simultaneously parallel to all arbitrary $\vec{u}$.
Hence $\vec{a}=\vec{0}$.