Show that if series $a_n$ converges then series $(-1)^n a_n$ converges.

Is that true? A quick proof is highly appreciated.Thanks
Show that if series $a_n$ converges then series $(-1)^n a_n$ converges.

Is that true? A quick proof is highly appreciated.Thanks
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This is not true. Let $a_n = (-1)^n \frac{1}{n}$. As
$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty }\frac{1}{n} = 0$,
$\frac{1}{n} >0$ for any $n \geq 1$,
and
we know by alternating series test that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ converges. However
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^n a_n = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n}$, and this does not converge.
We have identified a sequence $a_n$ such that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ converges but $\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^n a_n$ diverges.
Please let me know if there is any clarification necessary.