Show that $(k!)^2$ divides $(2k+2)!$
We have $\binom{2k+2}{k+2}=\dfrac{(2k+2)!}{k!(k+2)!}\in \Bbb Z$ say $=p$
Now $k!$ divides $(k+2)!\implies (k!)^2$ divides $(2k+2)!$.
Is the arguement correct?Please help.
Show that $(k!)^2$ divides $(2k+2)!$
We have $\binom{2k+2}{k+2}=\dfrac{(2k+2)!}{k!(k+2)!}\in \Bbb Z$ say $=p$
Now $k!$ divides $(k+2)!\implies (k!)^2$ divides $(2k+2)!$.
Is the arguement correct?Please help.
On
We know that the product of any k consecutive integers is divisible by k!.
$(2k+2)!=[(2k+2).(2k+1)...(k+3)]\times[(k+2).(k+1)...3]\times 2.1$
where the first two factors in [] are each, products of k consecutive integers , so they are each divisible by k!, thus the whole number (2k+2)! is divisible by $(k!)^2$.
Yes, your argument is correct and good.
Also, note that since $\binom{2n}{n}$ is an integer, we can similarly prove that $(n!)^2$ divides $(2n)!$.
More generally, it is a well-known result that $(n!)^k$ divides $(kn)!$.