Prove that: $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\left({1\over n} + {1\over n+1} + \cdots + {1\over 2n} \right) = \ln2 $$
I would like to show that using elementary methods, since I'm not allowed to even use derivatives, not to mention integrals.
Before this one, I've been able to show that: $$ \exists\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1 + {1\over 2} + {1\over 3} + \cdots + {1\over n} - \ln n\right) = L \tag 1 $$
Since the expression in $(1)$ under the sign of limit is bounded below and is monotonically decreasing, then by monotone convergence theorem it must converge to some number (which appeared to be named the Euler-Mascheroni constant.)
Now since $(1)$ converges then it must satisfy Cauchy's Criteria. Let's define the following sequence: $$ x_n = 1 + {1\over 2} + {1\over 3} + \cdots + {1\over n} - \ln n $$
Then $x_{2n}$ is defined as follows: $$ x_{2n} = 1 + {1\over 2} + {1\over 3} + \cdots + {1\over 2n} - \ln (2n) $$
But both limits exist and are equal, which implies that: $$ \exists\lim_{n\to\infty}|x_{2n} - x_n| = 0 \tag2 $$
Now performing some algebraic manipulations on $(2)$ one may obtain: $$ \begin{align} |x_{2n} - x_n| &= \left|\sum_{k=1}^{2n}{1\over k} - \sum_{k=1}^{n}{1\over k} -\ln(2n) + \ln n\right|\\ &=\left|\sum_{k=n+1}^{2n}{1\over k} - (\ln(2n) -\ln n)\right| \\ &=\left|\sum_{k=n+1}^{2n}{1\over k} - \ln 2\right| \end{align} $$
Since $|x_{2n} - x_n|$ is convergent to $0$ then: $$ \forall \epsilon > 0\ \exists N\in\Bbb N: \forall n\ge N \implies |x_{2n} - x_n| = \left|\sum_{k=n+1}^{2n}{1\over k} - \ln 2\right| < \epsilon $$
Which is a standard definition of the limit, hence: $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=n}^{2n}{1\over k} = \ln 2 $$
I would like to ask for verification of the proof above, and/or point to mistakes in case of any. Thank you!
Note: This problem is given among other problems in the "Limit of numerical sequences" section. Long before the definition of the Integral is given.
Your argument is ok if you take $(1) $ as the starting point. I would say that your writing is too convoluted, and you are misusing the $\exists $ symbol.
You could simply say \begin{align} \sum_{k=n+1}^{2n}\frac1k-\log2=\left (\sum_{k=1}^{2n}\frac1k-\log2n\right)-\left (\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac1k-\log n\right)\xrightarrow [n\to\infty]{}L-L=0. \end{align} You need to distinguish between how you get the idea, and how you write the proof.