Show that no group homomorphism $h : \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ is injective.
If $h$ is injective, then $\ker(h)= \{(a,b) \mid h(a,b)=0 \} =0$. Now the map $h$ is completely determined by where it sends the generators $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$ so can we use these two to show a contradiction?
If there were an injective homomorphism, that would embed $\mathbb Z^2$ as a subgroup of the cycllic group $\mathbb Z$. But every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic, whereas $\mathbb Z^2$ is not cyclic.