Let $R$ be an equivalence relation on $S$. Show that for all $s_1, s_2$ elements of $S$ we have $s_1(\text{equivalence class}) = s_2(\text{equivalence class})$ iff $s_1\mathrel{R}s_2$.
I understand that this is a iff proof, so we have to show both ways
$s_1(\text{equivalence class}) = s_2(\text{equivalence class})\implies s_1\mathrel{R}s_2$ and
$s_1\mathrel{R}s_2$ $\implies$ $s_1(\text{equivalence class}) = s_2(\text{equivalence class})$.
But I'm having trouble finding the connections in each case.
Questions like this can be tricky if you're not used to "definition chasing." I'll demonstrate how to organize this type of proof. What you write as $s_1(\text{equivalence class})$ is generally written $[s_1]$. I'll write it that way in this answer.
Assume that $[s_1]=[s_2]$. You know from the inclusion $[s_1]\subseteq [s_2]$ that $s_2\text{ R }s_1$, and you know from $[s_1]\supseteq [s_2]$ that $s_1\text{ R }s_2$.
Conversely, suppose that $s_1\text{ R }s_2$. By definition, for every $x\in [s_1]$, $s_1\text{ R }x$. Since $\text{R}$ is an equivalence relation, it is symmetric, so $x\text{ R }s_1$. We also have that $\text{R}$ is transitive, so $x\text{ R }s_1$ and $s_1\text{ R }s_2$ implies that $x\text{ R }s_2$. Therefore, $s_2\text{ R }x$, so $x\in [s_2]$. From this, we have that $[s_1]\subset [s_2]$. An identical argument shows that $[s_2]\subset [s_1]$, so $[s_1]=[s_2]$.