Let $ \ p \ $ be an odd prime number . Show that $$ \sum_{k=1}^{p-1} (k-1)! (p-k)! k^{p-1} \equiv 0 \pmod p \ $$
Answer:
Now,
$ \sum_{k=1}^{p-1} (k-1)! (p-k)! k^{p-1} \\ =\sum_{k=1}^{p-1} k! (p-k)! k^{p-2} \\ =\sum_{k=1}^{p-1} (-1)^k k^{p-2} \ \pmod p \\=-1+2^{p-2}-3^{p-2}+......+(-1)^{p-1} (p-1)^{p-2} \pmod p $
But I can not conclude the result.
Help me doing this
The fact that you are using is wrong. What is true is the following $$(k-1)!(p-k)! \equiv (-1)^{k} \pmod p$$
Now using the Fermat's Little Theorem that $k^{p-1} \equiv 1\pmod p$ your have
$$\sum_{k=1}^{p-1} (k-1)! (p-k)! k^{p-1} \equiv \sum_{k=1}^{p-1} (-1)^{k} \equiv 0 \pmod p$$
The above fact is true as $(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod p$ by Wilson's Theorem and then $$(k-1)!(p-k)! \equiv (-1)^{k-1}(p-k+1)(p-k+2)\cdots(p-1)(p-k)! \equiv (-1)^k \pmod p$$