When doing induction should you always try to put your final answer as the "desired " form? For example if: $$\sum^{n}_{k=1}(k+2)(k+4) = \frac{2n^{3} + 21n^{2} + 67n}{6}$$ we ought to give the final answer as $$\frac{2(k+1)^{3} + 21(k+1)^{2} + 67(k+1)}{6}?$$
I just expanded both the $\text{LHS}_{k+1}$ and the $\text{RHS}_{k+1}$ to show they were equal after the induction. Like this:
Show that $$\sum^{n}_{k=1}(k+2)(k+4) = \frac{2n^{3} + 21n^{2} + 67n}{6}$$ for all integers $n \geq 1$.
For $n = 1$,
$$\sum^{1}_{k=1}(k+2)(k+4) = 15$$
and
$$\frac{2(1)^{3} + 21(1)^{2} + 67(1)}{6} = 15$$
Assume that it is true for some integer $n = k$, thus $$\sum^{k}_{k=1}(k+2)(k+4) = \frac{2k^{3} + 21k^{2} + 67k}{6}$$ so the $\text{LHS}_{k+1}$ $$\sum^{k+1}_{k=1}(k+2)(k+4) = \sum^{k}_{k=1}(k+2)(k+4) + (k+3)(k+5)$$ $$= \frac{2k^{3} + 21k^{2} + 67k}{6} + \frac{6(k+3)(k+5)}{6}$$ $$=\frac{2k^{3} + 27k^{2} + 115k + 90}{6}$$ Now the $\text{RHS}_{k+1}$ $$\frac{2(k+1)^{3} + 21(k+1)^{2}+ 67(k+1)}{6} = \frac{2k^{3} + 27k^{2} + 115k + 90}{6}$$ Thus $\text{LHS}_{k+1} = \text{RHS}_{k+1}$ Q.E.D.
First, show that this is true for $n=1$:
$\sum\limits_{k=1}^{1}(k+2)(k+4)=\frac{2\cdot1^3+21\cdot1^2+67\cdot1}{6}$
Second, assume that this is true for $n$:
$\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}(k+2)(k+4)=\frac{2n^3+21n^2+67n}{6}$
Third, prove that this is true for $n+1$:
$\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n+1}(k+2)(k+4)=$
$\color\red{\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}(k+2)(k+4)}+(n+1+2)(n+1+4)=$
$\color\red{\frac{2n^3+21n^2+67n}{6}}+(n+1+2)(n+1+4)=$
$\frac{2(n+1)^3+21(n+1)^2+67(n+1)}{6}$
Please note that the assumption is used only in the part marked red.