I've been asked to show that the ideal $I = \langle x^3 - 1, x^2 - 4x + 3\rangle$ in $\mathbb{C}[x]$ is equivalent to $I = \langle p(x)\rangle$ for some polynomial $p(x)$.
Now, I'm not quite sure what the ideal generated by two polynomials looks like, but I know that $\langle h(x)\rangle = \{ f(x)h(x)\ |\ f(x)\in R[x]\}$, so I took a guess and said $$ I = \{q_1(x)(x^3 - 1) + q_2(x)(x^2 - 4x + 3)\ |\ q_1(x), q_2(x)\in \mathbb{C}[x]\} $$ I know that $x^3 - 1$ and $x^2-4x+3$ both have a common factor of $x - 1$, so this set is $$ I = \{(q_1(x)(x^2 + x + 1) + q_2(x)(x - 3))(x - 1)\ |\ q_1(x), q_2(x)\in \mathbb{C}[x]\} $$ but this is where I'm stuck. Am I going in the right direction? Is what I've written above equivalent to $\langle x - 1\rangle$? If so, how do you rigorously show that $\{q_1(x)(x^2 + x + 1) + q_2(x)(x - 3)\ |\ q_1(x), q_2(x)\in \mathbb{C}[x]\} = \mathbb{C}[x]$?
Well, there is no need to complete the last part of OP's attempt, but I am answering anyhow. The OP can try again to show that the greatest common divisor of $x^2+x+1$ and $x-3$ is $1$. That is, $$1=(x^2+x+1)\,p(x)+(x-3)\,q(x)$$ for some $p(x),q(x)\in\mathbb{C}[x]$. Thus, any $f(x)\in \mathbb{C}[x]$ is in the ideal generated by $x^2+x+1$ and $x-3$ as $$f(x)=f(x)\cdot 1=(x^2+x+1)\,p(x)\,f(x)+(x-3)\,q(x)\,f(x)\,.$$ But this is practically the same thing that mechanodroid did, and can be skipped entirely.