Let $(e_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be a complete orthonormal system in a Hilbert space $H$. Let $x_n=e_{2n}$ and $y_n=x_n + \frac{1}{n+1}e_{2n+1}$. Let $F=\overline{\text{span }\{x_n, n\in\mathbb{N}\}}$ and $G=\overline{\text{span }\{y_n, n\in\mathbb{N}\}}$.
I need to show that any element in $F+G=\{z\in H \mid z=x+y,\quad x\in F, y\in G\}$ can be written as an element from $F$ and an element from $G$ in only one way.
When the intersection of $F$ and $G$ is the zero vector space, I can prove the statement above, but I do not know how to show $F\cap G=\{0\}$.
This means that no element in $F$ is in $G$ and vice versa.
What bothers me is that my intuition makes me feel like the intersection is not zero since $y_n = x_n + \frac{1}{n+1}e_{2n+1}$ converges to $x_n$ as $n$ becomes infinitely large, since the norm of $e_k$ is always 1. Therefore this would make it seem that $y_n=x_n\in G$ for $n\to\infty$, so $F\cap G\supset\{0,x_n\}\neq\{0\}$.
Any ideas? I know that if $z=(x+y)\in H$, then $(x+y)=\Sigma \langle (x+y)\mid e_k\rangle e_k$, since $(e_k)$ is a complete orthornormal system in $H$.
The error in your intuition lies in the statement "$y_n = x_n + \frac{1}{n+1}e_{2n+1}$ converges to $x_n$ as $n$ becomes infinitely large". If you are letting $n$ tend to infinity, then any individual $x_n$ does not have meaning in that context.
Here's the same fallacy in a more elementary situation: "the function $y=x+1/x$ converges to $x$ as $x$ becomes infinitely large, so $y=x$ for $x\to\infty$".