Let $p$ be an odd prime, and $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Here's what I have so far.
$$x^2 \equiv 1\pmod {p^n}$$
implies
$$p^n|x^2-1$$
$$x^2-1 = (x+1)(x-1)$$
so we have $$(x+1)(x-1) \equiv 0\pmod {p^n}$$
I don't know where to go from here. I know that $\pm 1$ are solutions (obviously) but I don't know how to show that they are the only solutions.
The inequality $(x+1)(x−1)\equiv0(\text{mod }p^n)$shows that the only possible solutions $x$ are such that $x+1\equiv0(\text{mod }p^n)$ or $x-1\equiv0(\text{mod }p^n)$.
So, $x\equiv1(\text{mod }p^n)$ and $x\equiv-1(\text{mod }p^n)$ are the only solutions.