I am having a hard time proving this
Let $x_n$ be a sequence such that $x_{n+1}=\Big[\frac32x_n\Big]$ for $n\gt1$, where $[x]$ denotes the nearest integer function and $x_1=2$.
Show that this sequence has an infinite set of odd numbers and an infinite set of even numbers.
I think the best way to approach it is by contradiction. That is, assume that the sequence contains a finite number of odds, let that be $$S=\{x_{k_1},x_{k_2},\cdots x_{k_m}\}$$ Thus, all $x_{k_{m+i}}$ terms must be even numbers.
But $x_{k_{m+1}}=2l$ for $l\in\Bbb{Z}$, so $$x_{k_{m+2}}=\Big[\frac322l\Big]=\Big[3l\Big]$$
And since $[3l]$ is in $\Bbb{Z}$ for all $l\in\Bbb{Z}$ it follows that all $x_{k_j}$ will be of the form $[3t]$, $t\in \Bbb{Z}$.
If we can show that there are infinite number of odds of this form, I believe that we are done. But that is not hard to show, since $\forall t$ odd, $[3t]$ is also odd.
I am having strong doubts though about how rigorous this is, I fear I am missing something crucial here. Any ideas are welcome.
The argument you have started is a good approach. The only thing that is missing is to derive the desired contradiction.
Following the same path as in your argument we assume there is only a finite number of odd terms. This implies there is an integer $N$ such that $x_{n}$ is even for all $n\geq N$. Since $x_N$ is even we can write it on the form $x_N = 2^m\cdot k$ where $k$ is odd and $m\geq 1$. The recursion now gives us that (for $i\leq m$)
$$x_{N+i} = 3^i\cdot 2^{m-i}\cdot k$$
but then $x_{N+m} = 3^m\cdot k$ which is odd. This contradicts the assumption that there is a finite number of odd terms.
Similary if there is only a finite number of even terms then there is a $N$ such that $x_n$ is odd for all $n\geq N$. Since $x_N$ is odd we can write $x_N$ on the form $x_N = 2^m\cdot k+1$ where $k$ is odd and $m\geq 1$. But then
$$x_{N+i} = 3^i\cdot 2^{m-i}\cdot k + 1$$ so that $x_{N+m} = 3^m\cdot k+1$ which is even. Again this gives us a contradiction and we can conclude that the sequence has to contain an infinite number of terms of both parities.
Note that the argument above only works when $x_1>1$. If $x_1 = 1$ then $x_n=1$ for all $n$ so there will not be an infinite number of even terms (the argument above fails since $m=0$ in this case).