Question. Consider the simple, symmetric random walk on the integers given by the transition probabilities $$p_{ij}=\begin{cases}\frac{1}{2} & j=i-1\ \text{or}\ j=i+1,\\ 0 & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}.$$
Show this has no equilibrium distribution.
Attempt. By definition, a countably infinite Markov chain has an equilbrium distribution w if it satisfies $$w_j=\sum_{i\in S}w_ip_{ij},\quad\sum_{i\in S}w_i=1.$$
Now, we compute the first few terms and see if we can spot a general pattern. We have $$w_0=\frac{1}{2}w_{-1}+\frac{1}{2}w_1,$$ $$w_1=\frac{1}{2}w_0+\frac{1}{2}w_2,$$ $$w_2=\frac{1}{2}w_1+\frac{1}{2}w_3,$$ or more generally $$w_n=\frac{1}{2}w_{n-1}+\frac{1}{2}w_{n+1},$$ for all $n\in S$.
This is where I get a bit stuck. First, I was thinking of solving the linear recurrence by setting $y^n:=w_n$ which gives me $$y^n=\frac{1}{2}y^{n-1}+\frac{1}{2}y^{n+1},$$ or equivalently $$1=\frac{1}{2y}+\frac{1}{2}y,$$ which reduces to $$y^2-2y+1=0\Rightarrow (y-1)(y-1)=0\Rightarrow y=1.$$ This then gives the solution $$w_n=c_1+c_2n,$$ but I fail to see what I can make of this.
Secondly, I was thinking of utilising condition, arriving to $$\frac{1}{2}\Big(...+w_{-1000}+w_{-999}+...+w_{-1}+w_0+...+w_{999}+w_{1000}+...\Big)=1,$$ which can't hold since we have an infinite sum on the left hand side. So from there, can we conclude that this has no equilibrium distribution? This seems a bit more promising; but would appreciate some verification on this nonetheless.
Thanks in advance.
The two problems with your approaches are
Here are some things you could try instead.
In general, there's probably a lot of ways to prove that if there is an equilibrium distribution $w$, then all the $w_i$ are equal. If you do that, then a contradiction is not far off, since an infinite sum of equal values is either $\infty$ (if they're nonzero) or $0$ (otherwise), never $1$.