I am not allowed to use limits. I have to prove it by exploiting the Bernoulli inequality.
If $b\geq a$, then there is nothing to show. If $b <a$ and if $b\geq2$ then I can say $$a <[a]+1 <1+(b-1)([a]+1)<b^{[a]+1}$$ I don't know how to argue in the case $2>b>1$
But by Bernoulli $$b^n=(1+b-1)^n\geq1+n(b-1)>a$$ for $$n>\frac{a-1}{b-1}.$$