Show that $\vdash P(y) \leftrightarrow \forall x(x=y \rightarrow P(x))$

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List of axioms:

$(A1)$ - All Tautologies.

$(A2)$ - $(\forall x(\alpha \rightarrow \beta) \rightarrow (\forall x \alpha \rightarrow \forall x \beta)) $.

$(A3)$ - $(\forall x \alpha) \rightarrow [\alpha]^{t}_{x} $ if x is free for t in $\alpha$.

$(A4)$ - $\alpha \rightarrow (\forall x \alpha) $ if x is not free in $\alpha $.

$(A5)$ - $ x = x$

$(A6)$ - $(x=y) \rightarrow (\alpha \rightarrow \beta)$ if $\beta$ if obtained by substitution of at least one occurrence of x free for y in $\alpha$.

Modus Ponens as inference rule.

Generalization Theorem:

If $\Gamma \vdash \phi$ and x do not occur free in any formula in $\Gamma$, then $\Gamma \vdash \forall x \phi$

And Deduction Theorem.

Again, the strategy is to prove: $\vdash P(y) \rightarrow \forall x(x=y \rightarrow P(x))$

and the converse.

I tried to use (A6) and got stuck with $(x=y) \rightarrow (P(y) \rightarrow P(x))$ after proving that $(x=y) \rightarrow (y=x)$

For the converse, I reach $(x=y) \rightarrow P(x)$ and need to prove $P(y)$. How do I suppose to prove $P(y)$ in this condition?

Is there an easier way to prove this theorem?