Problem:
Let $A = \{(a,b)\}$, determine whether the relation $R = \{(b,a)\}$ is transitive.
Claim:
No, $R$ is not transitive.
Proof:
Since $a,b\in A$ and $a\in R$ but $b,a\notin R$.
I am not sure if this is a sufficient proof. Any suggestions would help.
Well, it is transitive (with $A=\{a,b\}$). The definition is $$\forall a,b,c\in A: aRb \wedge bRc\Rightarrow aRc$$ where $R\subseteq A\times A$.
The point is that if the premise is not fulfilled, the relation is transitive (since then the implication becomes true). For instance, $R=\{(a,b)\}$ (where $A=\{a,b\}$) and $R=\{(a,b),(a,c)\}$ are all transitive, but $R=\{(a,b),(b,c)\}$ is not since $(a,c)$ is missing.