showing a set is affine

79 Views Asked by At

Let $F_1,\ldots, F_m \in k[x_1,\ldots, x_n]$. Let $\psi: \mathbb{A}^n\to \mathbb{A}^m$ be defined by $$\psi(p) = (F_1(p),\ldots,F_m(p)).$$ Show: The $\textit{graph}$ of $\psi$ $$\Gamma_\psi := \{(p,q)\in \mathbb{A}^{m+n}\, | \,\psi(p) = q\} $$ is an affine algebraic set.

$\textbf{Solution}$ The problem boils down to finding a polynomial that attains its zeroes points at the points. One construction of a polynomial $g\in k[x_1,\ldots, x_n,y_1,\ldots,y_m]$ with this property is given as: $$g(p,q) = (y_1- F_1(p) + (y_2- F_2(p)+\cdots + \big(y_m- F_m(p)\big), $$ another would be $$g(p,q) = \sum_{i=1}^m\big(y_i- F_i(p)\big)^i. $$ It is clear that $g(p,q) = 0$ if and only if $y_i = F_i(p)$ for all $i=1,\ldots, m$

To me this doesn't seem to really prove anything. Are my steps correct?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

3
On

Neither of your polynomials gives the desired set. Luckily, an affine algebraic set does not have to be defined by a single polynomial but a set of polynomials. You can use $S=\{y_1-F_1,y_2-F_2,...,y_m-F_m\}$ so $V(S)=\Gamma_\psi$.

Edit : To see why your polynomials do not work, consider the example where $F_1=x$ and $F_2=x-1$. Then the graph of $\psi$ is a line. The first $g$ you define is $y_1-x+y_2-x+1$, the zero set of $g$ is a plane. The second $g$ you define is $(y_1-x)\cdot (y_2-x+1)^2$, the zero set is two planes, the union $V(y_1-x)\cup V(y_2-x+1)$. Note that the zero set of polynomials you define always contain the graph $\Gamma_\psi$ but in general they are not equal.