The question as listed in the title is the question statement, only I do not want to use that one is mixing and the other is not.
Is it true that measurably isomorphic spaces are either both mixing or both non-mixing? If so, can you be so kind to tell why?
I was wondering if a direct proof to the question in the title exists that does not use mixing.
To show that they are not isomorphic it is fine to give a metric invariant that is different in the two.
For example: periodic points are very different in both cases, but the infinite set of periodic for a toral automorphism still has zero measure; I personally like mixing, but you may take entropy: one is positive and the other is zero.
PS: I wonder whether you wanted to write "hyperbolic toral automorphism" instead of "ergodic toral automorphism" since otherwise some technicalities need to be dealt with.