Let $X_1,\ldots,X_n$ be exponentially distributed with parameter $\lambda$ This implies that $Y=\sum_{i=1}^nX_i$ has a gamma distribution with parameters $(\lambda,n)$
Can anyone help me show that $$\left( \frac{a}{n\bar{x}}, \frac{b}{n\bar{x}} \right)$$ Is an exact $95$% central confidence interval for $\lambda$ if
$$\int_0^a \frac{y^{n-1}e^{-y}\;dy}{\Gamma(n)}= \int_b^\infty \frac{y^{n-1}e^{-y}\;dy}{\Gamma(n)}= 0.025$$
Here is what I have so far. Basically i've been trying to construct anything to help use those given integrals
$$P\left(\frac{a}{n\bar{x}}<Y<\frac{b}{n\bar{x}}\right)=P\left(Y<\frac{a}{n\bar{x}}\right)+P\left(Y<\frac{b}{n\bar{x}}\right)-1$$
$$=\lambda^{-n}\int_0^\frac{a}{n\bar{x}} \frac{y^{n-1}e^{-y/\lambda}\;dy}{\Gamma(n)}+\lambda^{-n}\int_0^\frac{b}{n\bar{x}} \frac{y^{n-1}e^{-y/\lambda}\;dy}{\Gamma(n)}-1$$
Which is where I get stuck as this doesn't really look salvagable. Any help here would be greatly appreciated!
You wrote $$P\left(\frac{a}{n\bar{x}}<Y<\frac{b}{n\bar{x}}\right).$$ But what you need is $$P\left(\frac{a}{n\bar{X}}<\lambda<\frac{b}{n\bar{X}}\right) = 0.95.\tag{1}$$ I've set $\bar X$ in capital since it's a random variable. One must remember what is random and what is not random in this kind of problem. To say that $a/(n\bar X)$ is "random" in effect means that if you take another sample, the value of that expression will change. $\lambda$ on the other hand is not random since it will remain the same if another sample is taken.
(1) is equivalent to $$ P\left(\frac a\lambda < n\bar X < \frac b\lambda\right) = 0.95, $$ or $$ P\left(\frac a\lambda < Y < \frac b\lambda\right) = 0.95 \tag{2} $$ Here is an ambiguity in the question: does "exponential with parameter $\lambda$" mean having density proportional to $y\mapsto e^{-\lambda y}$ or does it mean $y\mapsto e^{-y/\lambda}$? Since (2) is equivalent to $$ P\left(a < \lambda Y < b\right) = 0.95, $$ I take it to mean $\lambda Y$ has a gamma distribution with parameter $1$ in place of $\lambda$, so the density of the exponential is proportional to $y\mapsto e^{-\lambda y}$, i.e. $\lambda$ is an intensity parameter rather than a scale parameter.
So $$ P(X_i > c) = \int_c^\infty e^{-\lambda u} (\lambda \; du) = \int_{\lambda c}^\infty e^{-y}\;dy, $$ and so $$ P(Y>c) = (X_1 + \cdots + X_n > c) = \int_{\lambda c}^\infty \frac{y^{n-1} e^{-y}}{\Gamma(n)} \; dy. $$
Finally we have $$ P\left( \frac a\lambda < Y < \frac b\lambda \right) = \int_{\lambda(a/\lambda)}^{\lambda(a/\lambda)} \cdots\cdots = \int_a^b \cdots\cdots. $$