I am trying to prove that $f_n(x)=\dfrac{e^{-nx}}{n}\rightarrow f(x)=0$ uniformly on $x\in[0, \infty)$. To do this I am trying to show that: $$\dfrac{e^{-nx}}{n} < \epsilon$$ I tried to do it this way, but I am not sure if it is correct: \begin{align} &\dfrac{e^{-nx}}{n} \\ &<\dfrac{1}{n} \quad \forall n>N_1 \ \exists N_1\in \mathbb{N} \\ &<\epsilon \quad \forall n>N_2 \ \exists N_2\in \mathbb{N} \\ \\ \therefore \dfrac{e^{-nx}}{n}&<\epsilon \quad \forall n>N=\max\{N_1, N_2\} \end{align}
This in turn implies uniform convergence. Is this the correct way to do it?
Let $n \geq 1$ then $g(x)=e^{-nx}$ is a decreasing function defiend on $[0,+\infty)$
Thus $e^{-nx} \leq e^0=1$ thus $$\sup_{x \geq 0}|\frac{e^{-nx}}{n}| \leq \frac{1}{n}$$
Thus is $\epsilon >0$ then for $n \geq n_0=[\frac{1}{\epsilon}]+1$ we have that $$ \sup_{x \geq 0}|\frac{e^{-nx}}{n}| \leq \epsilon$$