Let $H$ be a finite normal subgroup of $G$. Show that for any $g\in G$, the map $f:H \to H$ defined by $f(h)=g^{-1}h^{-1}gh$ is bijective.
Edit to problem:
Let $H$ be a finite normal subgroup of $G$. Let $g\in G$ have order $n$ and the only element in $H$ that commute with $g$ is $e$, the identity element of $H$.
Show that for any $g\in G$, the map $f:H \to H$ defined by $f(h)=g^{-1}h^{-1}gh$ is bijective.
Here's my attempt. I can't prove the surjectivity yet. So, I try prove the injectivity.
Let $a,b \in H$. Assume that $f(a)=f(b)$. Now,
$g^{-1}a^{-1}ga = g^{-1}b^{-1}gb$
$a^{-1}ga = b^{-1}gb$
$a^{-1}gag^{-1} = b^{-1}gbg^{-1}$
$a^{-1}H = b^{-1}H$
$a^{-1} = b^{-1} \Leftrightarrow a=b$
Is that true? If no, how to prove it? Any idea to prove the surjectivity too? Thanks in advance.
You cannot conclude from $a^{-1}H = b^{-1}H$ that $a^{-1}=b^{-1}$. For one thing, since you are assuming that $a,b\in H$, then you always have $a^{-1}H=b^{-1}H = H$, whether $a$ and $b$ are equal or not.
However, you are almost there in the modified problem, with $H$ finite and the assumption that no element of $H$ other than $e$ commutes with $g$. From $f(a)=g(b)$, you have $a^{-1}ga = b^{-1}gb$. This gives you $$\begin{align*} a^{-1}ga &= b^{-1}gb\\ ba^{-1}g &= gba^{-1}\\ (ba^{-1})g &= g(ba^{-1}). \end{align*}$$ Can you take it from there?