I'm somewhat convinced by taking the limits of $\frac{n}{(\log{n})^k}$ (i.e. proving little $o$ to prove big $O$), but am struggling to prove that it is the case via the formal definition; say the following:
We say that a function $f(n)$ is $O(g(n))$ if there exists a positive real number $M$ and a real number $x_0$ such that $$|f(x)|\leq M\cdot g(x)\quad {\text{ for all }x\geq x_{0}.}$$
I think it boils down to showing $(\log{n})^k \geq M\cdot n$, but I'm stumped.
For any $k\in\mathbb{N}$ and $x>k+1$ we have that $x^k<k!\frac{x^{k+1}}{(k+1)!}<k!e^x$. Take $x=\log n$ and you get that $(\log n)^k=O(n)$. [Note that $k!$ is a constant.]