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$$\pi\int_{0}^{\infty}[1+\cosh(x\pi)]^{-n}dx={(2n-2)!!\over (2n-1)!!}\cdot{2\over 2^n}\tag1$$
Recall
$$1+\cosh(x\pi)={(e^{x\pi}+1)^2\over 2e^{x\pi}}\tag2$$
$$I_n=2^n\pi\int_{0}^{\infty}{e^{xn\pi}\over (1+e^{x\pi})^{2n}}dx\tag3$$
$$I_n={2^n\pi\over n\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty}n\pi e^{nx\pi}(1+e^{x\pi})^{-2n}dx\tag4$$
$$I_n=\left.{2^n\over n}\cdot{1\over (1+e^{x\pi})^{2n-1}}\right|_{0}^{\infty}\tag5$$
$$I_n={1\over n(2n-1)2^{n-1}}\tag6$$
Help, where did I went wrong?
New Edit
From (3) we make a substitution
let $u=x\pi \rightarrow du=dx$
$$I_n=2^n\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{un}(1+e^u)^{-2n}du\tag{3a}$$
First: remove the useless constant by setting $x=\frac{z}{\pi}$. Then, through $z=\log u$ and $v=\frac{1}{u}$:
$$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}(1+\cosh(z))^{-n}\,dz = 2^n\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{\left(2+u+\frac{1}{u}\right)^{-n}}{u}\,du=2^n\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\left(2+v+\frac{1}{v}\right)^{-n}}{v}\,dv$$ so the LHS equals: $$ 2^{n-1}\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{u^{n-1} du}{(u+1)^{2n}}\,du = 2^n\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{t^{2n-1}\,dt}{(1+t^2)^{2n}}= 2^{n-1} B(n,n) = 2^{n-1}\frac{\Gamma(n)^2}{\Gamma(2n)}.$$
As an alternative, just apply IBP multiple times.
It leads to a recursion similar to the one for $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\sin^{2n}(\theta)\,d\theta.$