I am trying to prove the following result:
Let $(X,d)$ be a compact metric space, and suppose that $f:X\to X$ satisfies:
$$ d(f(x),f(y))<d(x,y)\,,\forall x,y\in X\,... (1)$$
Then, there is a unique $x^* \in X$ such that $f(x^*)=x^*$.
I am aware there are a couple proofs in here, but I tried a different approach, namely: a direct proof. And I would like some feedback about it.
Proof: Let $x_{0}\in X$ arbitrary but fixed. Let us define the sequence $(x_{k})_{k=0}^{\infty}$ by
$$ x_{k}:=\begin{cases}x_{0}&\text{ if } k=0\\ f(x_{k-1})&\text{ if } k\geq1 \end{cases} $$
That is: we are defining recursively the compostion of $f\circ f$.
Now, since $X$ is compact, there is a subsequence $(y_{l})_{l=0}^{\infty}:=(x_{k_{l}})_{l=0}^{\infty}$ of $(x_{k})_{k=0}^{\infty}$ such that:
$$ \lim_{l\to\infty}y_{l}\to y^* $$
We claim that $y^*$ is a fixed point for the sequence $y_{l}$
This is because:
$$ f(y^*)=f(\lim_{l\to\infty}{y_{l}})=\lim_{l\to\infty}f(y_{l})=\lim_{l\to\infty}y_{l+1}=y^* $$
Where the last two equalities are because:
- f is continuous (because $(1)$)
- The tail of the sequence has the same limit.
Now, we claim that $x^*:=y^*$ is a fixed point for $(x_{k})_{k=0}^{\infty}$.
Let $(z_{k})_{k=0}^{\infty}$ be defined as follows:
$$ z_{k}:=d(x_{k},x^*) $$
Observe that, $d(x_{k},x^*)\geq d(x_{k+1},x^*)\geq0$ applying the function $f$ and $(1)$.
Then, $(z_{k})_{k=1}^{\infty}$ is a decreasing and bounded by $0$ sequence. Thus it converges to $0$. (I think this step requires a deeper treatment).
Then $x_{k}\to x^*$ and similarly to the sequence $y_{l}$ we show that $x^*$ is a fixed point for $f$.
To show that $x^*$ is unique, suppose that $w^*$ is a different fixed point for $f$. Then, since $w^*\neq x^*$:
$$ 0\leq d(x^*,w^*)<d(x^*,w^*) $$
But that is a contradiction. Then $x^*=w^*$.
$\square$
If $X\ne\emptyset$ there obviously cannot exist a function satisfying the hypothesis (considering $x=y$ leads to $0<0$). Hence strictly speaking the result is true, but only vacuously; it's also true that if $f$ is as above then I am the king of France.
A less silly version:
Proof. Define $D(x)=d(x, f(x))$. Since $D$ is continuous there exists $x_0$ with $D(x_0)\le D(x)$ for all $x$. Hence $f(x_0)=x_0$, because if not then $$D(f(x_0))=d(f(x_0),f(f(x_0))<d(x_0,f(x_0))=D(x_0).$$Uniqueness is still trivial.