We are given that $\frac{m}{n} = \frac{p}{q} \iff qm = pn$
We define $\frac{m}{n}$ as positive if $mn > 0$
Show that the definition of $\frac{m}{n}$ is well defined.
Attempt:
What I need to show is that for any fraction equivalent to $\frac{m}{n}$ that the definieiton is also satisfied. So let's take $\frac{p}{q}$ from the same equivalence class as $\frac{m}{n}$. Since they are from the same equivalence class this means: $$qm = pn$$
I'm not sure what kind of algebraic manipulation I should try. I know that I would like to arrive at $pq > 0$ and I feel that it just involves getting $qm = pn \implies mn = pq$.
But how to get this?
Suppose $mn>0$ and $m/n=p/q$. Then $mq=np$ and so $m^2q^2=mnpq$. If $pq<0$, then $mnpq<0$: a contradiction with $m^2q^2>0$.
To add some details, note that $m\ne0$, otherwise $mn=0$, which is impossible. Since $q\ne0$, we have $mq\ne0$ and therefore $(mq)^2>0$.