Showing that if $\int_C f(z) \, dz=0$ for every circle $C$ in $\mathbb{C}$, then $f$ is holomorphic.

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I understand that this is the difficult direction of Morera's proof, applied to disks, rather than triangles.

However, the trick of defining $$F(z)=\int_{\gamma(t)}f(w)\,dw, \text{ with } \gamma(t)=tz+(1-t)z_0$$

No longer works, as this function is no longer path invariant and therefore not well defined, although the particulars of this are not completely clear to me. Should I think of this definition of $F$ to be on cosets of $\mathbb{C}$ quotiented by paths in some way?

Any tips on how to approach this proof would be much appreciated.