Problem: Let $G$ be a simply connected (i.e., $\pi(G)=1$) topological group, and let $H$ be a discrete normal subgroup. Prove that $\pi(G/H,1) = H$.
I know that since $H$ is a discrete subgroup of $G$, we have that according to this post there exists an open set $U$ that contains $\{1\}$ s.t. the $hU$ are pairwise disjoint with $h \in H$.
Since $H$ is discrete in $G$, it seems that $\pi(H) \cong \{e\}$ since any choice of basepoint will yield only enough room for elements of $\pi(H)$ to be a trivial loop. I'm not sure if this helps us here.
In this answer all loops are based at the identity unless specified otherwise.
Recall that by the homotopy lifting property, since $p: G \rightarrow G/H$ is a covering map, any loop $\gamma: [0,1] \rightarrow G/H$ has a unique lift $\tilde \gamma: [0,1] \rightarrow G$ such that $\tilde \gamma(0) = 1_G$. Consider the map $f: \pi_1(G/H) \rightarrow H$ given by $f(\gamma) = \tilde\gamma(1)$. This is well-defined because the lift is unique, and by the homotopy lifting property again any homotopy $\gamma \simeq \gamma'$ lifts to a homotopy of paths in $X$; since $p(\gamma_t(1))=e$, and $H$ is discrete, we see that $\tilde\gamma'(1)=\tilde\gamma_t(1)=\tilde\gamma(1)$ for all $t$. The codomain is $H$ because $\gamma(1) = 1_{G/H}$, $\tilde \gamma(1) \in H$.
1) This is a homomorphism. For two homotopy classes of loops with representatives $\gamma, \eta$, if $f(\gamma) = h_1$ and $f(\eta) = h_2$, then we may lift $\eta$ to $\tilde\eta_{h_1}(t) = h_1\tilde \eta(t)$, whose basepoint is $h_1$ rather than $1_G$; clearly \tilde\eta_{h_1}(1)=h_1h_2. Since lifts are unique, the lift of the concatenation $\gamma*\eta$ first follows $\tilde \gamma$ and then $\tilde \eta_{h_1}$, so $\widetilde{\gamma * \eta}(1) = h_1h_2$, so it follows that $f$ is a homomorphism.
2) This map is injective. To see this, pick a loop $\gamma$ such that $\tilde \gamma(1) = 1_G$. Since $G$ is simply connected, $\tilde \gamma$ is null-homotopic (keeping the basepoint fixed, as usual). Projecting this homotopy to $G/H$ shows that $\gamma$ is null-homotopic as well. So the kernel of $f$ is trivial.
3) This map is surjective. Indeed, since $G$ is path-connected, fix $h \in H$ and pick a path $\gamma: I \rightarrow G$ with $\gamma(0) = 1_G$, $\gamma(1) = h$. This projects to a loop in $G/H$; its class $[\gamma] \in \pi_1(G/H)$ has $f([\gamma]) = h$.
So $f$ is an isomorphism, and $\pi_1(G/H) \cong H$.