This is a problem from Kenneth A Ross 2nd Edition Elementary Analysis:
Show that the infinite series,$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n+x^2}$$ converges uniformly for all $x$, and by termwise differentiation, compute $f '(x)$.
My work so far involves the Weierstrass M Test - essentially $\lvert\frac{(-1)^n}{n+x^2}\rvert \leq \lvert\frac{1}{k^2}\rvert \forall x \in \mathbb{R}$ and since $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2} \lt \infty$, the original series must be uniformly convergent for all x.
I'm not exactly sure if I did that right, or if the alternating negative one changes the requirements for the M-test.
Edit - based on comments, the alternating series test seems useful here. Because of the $(-1)^n$ component, and for each term $a_n$ in the series $a_{n+1} \leq a_n$, that means the series converges by the alternating series test. But does that show absolute convergence, and is that enough, or does it need more?
HINT: Let $f_k(x)=\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^k \frac{(-1)^n}{x^2+n}}$. You know that there is $f(x)$ so that $f_k(x)\to f(x)$ for each $x$. What is an estimate on $|f(x)-f_k(x)|$? Can you get that estimate independent of $x$?