Theorem $2.2$ states that
Let $X$ and $Y$ be separable Banach spaces and suppose that $f:X \rightarrow Y$ is an into isometry, then $X$ is linearly isometric to a subspace of $Y$.
In the proof, the author mentioned that
We may assume that $Y$ is equal to the closed linear span of $f(X)$.
Question: Why can we assume that?
If $X$ is isometric to a subspace of $\overline{f(X)}$, then of course it is isometric to a subspace of $Y$. So, we might as well assume $\overline{f(X)}=Y$.