Task: Prove this theorem: $ \exists x (P(x) \Rightarrow \forall yP(y) )$.
I got this far: I figured out this is equivalent to $\exists x (\neg P(x) \lor \forall yP(y) )$.
I don't understand however how I can go about completing the proof without any other extra information. I can't really assume anything about the statement $P$ can I?
You can't assume anything about $P$, nor do you have to. Note that because $x$ is not free in $\forall y P(y)$, $$ \exists x(\neg P(x)\lor \forall y P(y)) \equiv (\exists x \neg P(x)\lor \forall y P(y)). \tag{1} $$ Now recall that $\exists\neg \equiv \neg\forall$, so the righthand side of (1) is equivalent to $$ \text{(1)}_{RHS} \equiv (\neg \forall x P(x)\lor \forall y P(y)).\tag{2} $$ By changing variables, $$ \text{(2)}_{RHS} \equiv (\neg \forall y P(y)\lor \forall y P(y)),\tag{3} $$ which is a tautology, hence provable and valid. These are all equivalent to the lefthand side of (1), which, as you noticed, is equivalent to the formula you wish to prove.