Suppose we have a sequence of infinitely differentiable functions $ \{ f_k(x) \}$. Now suppose that these functions satisfy the following recursion: \begin{align} \frac{d}{dx} f_{n-1}(x)= f_n(x)- f_{n-1}(x) f_1(x) \end{align}
where $f_0(x)=1$ for all $x$. Can we re-write $f_n(x)$ only in terms of $f_1(x)$ and derivatives of $f_1(x)$?
It is not difficult to see that this is possible. The difficulty is to create the exact formula.
I don't know if this is what you want. It is easy to see $$f_n(x) = f_{n-1}^\prime(x) + f_{n-1}(x)f_1(x). \tag{1}$$ Multiplying both sides of (1) by $e^{\int f_1(x)dx}$ gives $$f_n(x)e^{\int f_1(x)dx} = \bigg[f_{n-1}(x) e^{\int f_1(x)dx}\bigg]'. \tag{2}$$ Let $$ g_n(x)=f_n(x)e^{\int f_1(x)dx}. $$ Then (2) gives $$ g_n(x)=g_{n-1}'(x) $$ Using this recursion $(n-1)$-times, one has $$ g_n(x)=g_1^{(n-1)}(x)=\frac{d^{n-1}}{dx^{n-1}}\bigg[f_1(x)e^{\int f_1(x)dx}\bigg] $$ and hence $$ f_n(x)=e^{-\int f_1(x)dx}\frac{d^{n-1}}{dx^{n-1}}\bigg[f_1(x)e^{\int f_1(x)dx}\bigg] $$