I have an equation the following equation in my textbook, but I don't understand how it's legal for it to be simplified this way. $${1000\over \pi\sqrt[3]{500\over \pi}^2}=2\sqrt[3]{500\over \pi}$$ I know that an equivalent equation is $${1000\over \pi{500\over \pi}^{2/3}}={1000\over \pi({500\over \pi})^{1/3}({500\over \pi})^{1/3}}$$ Looking at it I can see where things might cancel, like in one of the ${500\over \pi}^{1/3}$, the $500$ could go into $1000$ twice, and cancel out the $\pi$ in the denominator, but as far as I can remember that's not allowed.
Why is this okay?
Hint:
multiply numerator and denominator for: $$ \sqrt[3]{\dfrac{500}{\pi}} $$