I have seen the rule that if $\gcd(k,m) =1 $ and we have $ka \equiv kb \pmod{m}$ then $a \equiv b \pmod{m}$. But I have just seen that $3(7k) \equiv 3 \pmod{15} \implies 2k \equiv 1 \pmod{5}$ What rule is being used here? Why has the modulus also been divided by 3? Is it to do with the fact 15 isn't prime?
2026-04-03 04:16:32.1775189792
Simplifying the modulus of a linear congruences
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In the following implication, $$3(7k) \equiv 3 \space (mod \space 15) \implies 2k \equiv 1 \space (mod \space 5)$$
Note that if $$3(7k) \equiv 3 \space (mod \space 15)$$ then for some integer $m$, we have $$3(7k)-3=15m$$ and we can divide by three to get $$7k-1=5m$$ which implies $$ 2k \equiv 1 \space (mod \space 5)$$