I saw this fact stated in many places (as Wikipedia) but I could not find a proof of it anywhere. I don't really want a rigorous proof but I'd like to get the geometric intuition behind this, since right now it makes no sense to me.
Also any references on this are appreciated.
Let's suppose we have that the tangent bundle $\pi:TX\to X$ is an $SL(n)$-bundle. This means, by definition, that we have an $SL(n)$-atlas $\{(U_i,\phi_i)\}_{i\in I}$, where $\phi_i: \pi^{-1}(U_i)\to U_i\times \mathbb{R}^n$ is a linear isomorphism and a homeomorphism, and moreover $\phi_i$ commutes with the projections to $U_i$, and such that the induced transition maps $$ \phi_{ji}: U_i\cap U_j \to GL(n), $$ given by $x\mapsto (\phi_j)_x \circ (\phi_i)_x^{-1}$, actually land inside $SL(n)\subset GL(n)$. With this atlas in hand, we should be able to define a volume form on $X$. Indeed, we can take coordinates $x_1,\dots, x_n$ on each $U_i$ and let the volume form on $U_i$ be $v_i:=dx_1\wedge\dots\wedge dx_n$. The last thing we need to check is that these local volume forms glue into a global volume form on $X$. Well, you can check that on an overlap $U_i\cap U_j$, that the transition functions $\phi_{ji}$ induce transition functions $\tilde{\phi}_{ji}$ on $\bigwedge^n T^*X$ (imagine doing $(\phi_{ji}^{T})^{-1}$ to each vector in the wedge product). You can also check that $\tilde{\phi}_{ji} = \det(\phi_{ji})^{-1}$; in other words, $$ \tilde{\phi}_{ji}(v_i) = \det(\phi_{ji})^{-1} v_j. $$ But since we have $\phi_{ji} \in SL(n)$, this determinant is $1$, and hence the $v_i$ glue into a volume form on $X$.
To get the rough idea of going backwards, take a volume form $v$ on $X$. In the overlap of two charts we can do a bit of linear algebra and choose transition matrices that preserve the volume form, which entails that the $\phi_{ji}$ will take values in $SL(n)$, hence giving an $SL(n)$-structure on $TX$.