So assume you have two smooth maps $f:M\rightarrow N$ and $g:P\rightarrow Q$. If we define the map $f\times g:M\times P\rightarrow N\times Q$ to be such that $(f\times g)(x,y)=(f(x),g(y))$. Does it follow that such a map is smooth?
2026-04-18 08:14:11.1776500051
Smooth manifolds and cartesian products
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