Let $N\geq 1$ and $1<p<N$ with conjugate exponenr $p^{\prime}$. I would like to understand if there exists some inclusion relation between $W^{1, p}(\mathbb{R}^N)$ and $W^{1, p^{\prime}}(\mathbb{R}^N)$, maybe something $$W^{1, p}(\mathbb{R}^N)\hookrightarrow W^{1, p^{\prime}}(\mathbb{R}^N).$$ If not, it makes sense to consider $$W^{1, p}(\mathbb{R}^N)\cap W^{1, p^{\prime}}(\mathbb{R}^N)?$$
Could someone please help?
Thank you in advance!
Sketch. In the case $p=2=p'$ there is nothing to prove. Otherwise, say $p<2$ so that $p'>2$. Let $\chi$ be a bump function equal to $1$ near the origin. Then it is a standard exercise to check that $f(x)=\frac1{|x|^\theta}\in W^{1,p}(B_1(0))$ and $f\notin W^{1,p'}(B_1(0))$ for a certain $\theta$ depending on $N$ and $p$. (The basic calculation needed is that $\frac1{|x|^r}\in L^1_{\text{loc}}$ if $r<n$). Then $\chi f$ is a counterexample on $\mathbb R^n$. The $p>2$ case is also false, and for this you instead consider $(1-\chi)f$. Since $p''=p$ this also covers the reverse inclusion.
I don't know what it means to "consider" it; you can certainly write down the set.