In my previous question (see here) a user answered me by using the leibniz rule.
I'll post my initial value problem here again so you can see it better...
Solution:
$$u(t)=\frac{1}{v} \int_0^t \sin(v(t-s))f(s)~ds.$$
Initial value problem:
$$u''(t) +v^2u(t)=f(t)\text{ and }u(0)=u'(0)=0.$$
I just wanted to know if I could solve this question by using just the Fundamental theorem of Calculus.
Because...
$$ f(x) = \int^x_0 f'(x) \, dt$$
So that means...
$$u(t)=\frac{1}{v} \int_0^t \sin(v(t-s))f(s)~ds \Rightarrow u'(t) =\frac{1}{v} \sin(v(t-s))f(s)$$
$$u'(t) =\int_0^t \frac{1}{v} \sin(v(t-s))f(s) \frac{d}{dt} = \int_0^t \cos(v(t-s))f(s) $$
So far so good?
Then I've tried the same for $u''(t)$
$$ u''(t) = \cos(v(t-s))f(s) = \int_0^t \cos(v(t-s))f(s) \frac{d}{dt} = -v \int_0^t \sin(v(t-s))f(s)$$
But $u''(t)$ should be $= f(t) -v \int_0^t \sin(v(t-s))f(s)$ otherwise the formula isn't true.
Where's my mistake?
Your issue is $u''(t)$. Since $t$ is contained inside of the integral, you can't do that. In fact $$ u'(t) = \frac{1}{v} \bigg[\int_0^t\sin(v(t-s))f(s)ds\bigg]' = \int_0^t \cos(v(t-s))f(s) ds$$ and so $$ u''(t) = \bigg[\int_0^t \cos(v(t-s))f(s) ds\bigg]'=\cos(v(t-s))f(s)\bigg|_{s=t}-v\int_0^t \sin(v(t-s))f(s) ds=f(t)-v^2u(t).$$