It is true in general that if $P$ is a polynomial with real coefficients, then $\overline{P(z)}=P(\overline{z})$ for all $z$. This is false if $P$ has a nonreal coefficient.
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let $$z=x+iy$$ then we have $$(x-iy)^2=1$$ or
$$x^2-y^2-1-2xyi=0$$
so we get
$$x^2-y^2=1$$ and $$2xy=0$$
can you solve this?
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Hint. The given equation is equivalent to
$$(\overline{z})^2-1=(\overline{z}-1)(\overline{z}+1)=\overline{(z-1)(z+1)}=0.$$
Can you take it from here?
Since $(\overline{z})^2=\overline{(z^2)}$, it is easy to see that
$$(\overline{z})^2=1$$ $$\iff\overline{(z^2)}=1$$ $$\iff z^2 = 1$$ $$\iff z=\pm 1$$
It is true in general that if $P$ is a polynomial with real coefficients, then $\overline{P(z)}=P(\overline{z})$ for all $z$. This is false if $P$ has a nonreal coefficient.