I'm trying to solve $f'=f$ using fourier transform. I know that $$\hat f'(\alpha )=2i\pi \alpha \hat f(\alpha )$$ therefore $$f'=f\iff 2i\pi \alpha \hat f(\alpha )=\hat f(\alpha )\iff \hat f(\alpha )=0\iff f(x)=0,$$
what wrong ? Because the solution should be $f(x)=e^{x}$.
The Fourier transform is not defined for the exponential (the integral does not converge). So what you are proving is that $f'=f$ only has the zero solution within the domain of the Fourier transform (say, $L^1(\mathbb R)$).
Note that you say "the solution should be $e^x$". But $f=0\ $ is a solution of $f'=f$, and it is the only one in the domain of the Fourier transform.